Texts in Conversation
Isaiah 53 describes the servant’s suffering as something desired by God. The Greek Septuagint translation changes this to say that God wishes to “purify” the servant, removing the language that makes God appear violent or harsh.
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2500 BCE
1000+ CE
Isaiah 53:10
Hebrew Bible
9 They intended to bury him with criminals, but he ended up in a rich man’s tomb because he had committed no violent deeds, nor had he spoken deceitfully. 10 Though the Lord desired to crush him and make him ill, once restitution is made, he will see descendants and enjoy long life, and the Lord’s purpose will be accomplished through him. 11 Having suffered, he will reflect on his work, he will be satisfied when he understands what he has done. “My servant will acquit many, for he carried their sins.
Date: 740–450 BCE (based on scholarly estimates)
LXX Isaiah 53:10
Septuagint
9 And I will give the wicked for his burial, and the rich for his death; for he practiced no iniquity, nor was craft found in his mouth. 10 The Lord also wishes to cleanse him from his stroke. If you can give an offering for sin, your soul shall see a long-lived seed: the Lord also wishes to take away 11 from the labor of his soul, to show him light, and to form him with understanding; to justify the just one who serves many well; and he shall bear their sins.
Date: 100–1 BCE (based on scholarly estimates)
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Notes and References
"... The Hebrew text insinuates that it was God who caused the servant to suffer. The translator may have disliked this idea, and hence banned it from his translation. Something similar has happened in verse 10 ... Whereas in the Hebrew it pleases God to crush the servant, the Greek softens the text by stating that God wants to purify him ..."
Mirjam van der Vorm-Croughs, The Old Greek of Isaiah: An Analysis of Its Pluses and Minuses, SCS 61 (Atlanta: SBL, 2014), 467.
* The use of references are not endorsements of their contents. Please read the entirety of the provided reference(s) to understand the author's full intentions regarding the use of these texts.
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Is it possible that the LXX preserves a better reading of the original Hebrew, rather than the much later Masoretic text?
Is it possible that the LXX preserves a better reading of the original Hebrew, rather than the much later Masoretic text?The Septuagint pre-dates the Hebrew manuscripts, and the NT writers used the Septuagint 90% of the time when they quoted the Old Testament. Perhaps it should be the favored translation of this passage.
The Septuagint pre-dates the Hebrew manuscripts, and the NT writers used the Septuagint 90% of the time when they quoted the Old Testament. Perhaps it should be the favored translation of this passage.