“... To compare the formulations in Hebrews and Thomas, there is some difference of syntax between those in Thomas and that in Hebrews: in Hebrews, the phrase comes in a relative clause, while in Thomas it is a main clause. Nevertheless, there is obviously a striking similarity of language here which calls for explanation: some relationship between GTh 56 et al. and Hebrews 11 exists at this point. [...] Next, among the earliest instances, Hebrews and Thomas differ from the non-Christian Jewish uses (and Recognitions) in that the latter refer to ‘the whole world’. The Mishnah, as we have seen, reinforces this in its phrase kl hʿwlm klw (lit. ‘the whole world – all of it’). So it is likely that the original phrase contained ‘the whole world’. [...] In the use of the phrase, it seems that Thomas has two elements which it shares exclusively with Hebrews. First, Thomas shares with Hebrews the desire to transcend the present world. [...] Second, there is a point of commonality, albeit minor, in the use of the phrases in Hebrews and Thomas. This is the omission of the reference to the ‘whole’ world. [...] In the light of these factors, influence in one direction or another seems likely. [...] Second, and more materially, the idiom as it appears in Hebrews is closer to the Jewish “Vorlage” than Thomas is. The form of the saying in Hebrews is almost identical to that of the earliest Jewish usages, whereas the language in Thomas is by comparison more distant from the Jewish instances in Philo, the Mishnah and the Mekhilta. This is evident from Hebrews’ similar use of the phrase as a relative clause, as we also see in Philo, the Mishnah and the Mekhilta. It seems likely, then, that Hebrews contains the earliest extant use of the phrase in a Christian context, and that this is taken up secondarily and adapted by Thomas. ...”